moses wrote on Jun 18
th, 2017 at 1:40pm:
A proven liar waiting on his gold watch wrote: Reply #155 - Yesterday at 5:24pm
Quote:Never. You have thus far failed to prove that I have "knowingly told an untruth", Moses.
You refuse to accept that language and it's meaning has changed since the time The Bible was compiled. It is why you have the Aramaic, Greek, Early English, King Charles, King James, and modern English translations of The Bible - the language is subtly different in each, depending on who and when it was translated. Each uses similar but different words for the same things. Yet, even in the modern translations, they skirt around clear references to sex, sexual organs and what they did with them. Tsk, tsk. You really are rather foolish, Moses. Until you produce proof, it is you who is the liar, not me.
Gee more fallacies from you.
Translations into another language are made so that people from different countries with different languages can understand them.
Nothing more nothing less.
Please tell us when kindness goodwill and equality really meant rape.
Never knowingly told a lie?
That is the ostensible reasoning for a translation, Moses. However, the Christian Church(es) have often change the wording to "make it clearer" to it's recipients. In doing so, they have subtly changed the meaning of what they are translating. It is a common problem with the translation of language and one thing most professional translators must be careful of. Does the Church(es) care about that? It appears not.
Tell us, Moses, why is the King James version of The Bible considered the one which was "divinely inspired"? Was it because of it's content or it's language? If it was it's content, why weren't previous versions of The Bible considered "divinely inspired"? Further, if The Bible itself is "divinely inspired", who can have the authority to order it's translation, except God? Tsk, tsk, questions which I expect you'll avoid.