longweekend58 wrote on Sep 4
th, 2013 at 12:34pm:
Jesus said that He absolutely supported the law and the Prophets which both unequivocally condemned homosexuality. To claim that Jesus was pro-gay is absurd. Any student of the bible would conclude the exact opposite. and obviously by extension He would oppose gay marriage.
I doubt that you follow the Law and the Prophets, because I'm pretty sure you're not a Jew. Having said that, if homosexuality was wrong for Jesus and his followers, then it was a Jewish matter. Because it is a Jewish matter, whether or not homosexuality is wrong for us Gentiles depends on what the majority of the world's rabbis think. That's because like Jesus said, "the Pharisees (and now, the rabbis) sit in Moses' seat."
Because the question of whether homosexuality is wrong is a matter for rabbis, it does not determine whether a person is a follower of the Gospel. The Gospel means "good news." It is not about exposing people to the harshness of the Law, but about God offering his love outside of it.
longweekend58 wrote on Sep 4
th, 2013 at 2:35pm:
But the point has been about RUDD and the Bible not you. Rudd has shown that his beliefs are flexible depending on which one gets the most votes. For a politician that is almost excusable. But for a Christian, it is a disgrace.
I think the changes in Rudd's views have a lot more to do with naivety than to do with dishonesty.
longweekend58 wrote on Sep 4
th, 2013 at 7:17pm:
and there is a perfect example as to why cherry-picking (which is what you do) leads you up the garden path. Jesus fulfilled the Law and moved us from law to Grace.
Apart from the obvious objection from the majority of rabbis, there is a verse in the NT itself that suggests that the Law hasn't been fulfilled.
In Luke 21:24 Jesus says, "Jerusalem will be trampled on by the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled." As a biblical scholar, you would know a lot about prophecies and eschatology. You would know what the "Times of the Gentiles" are and that Jesus was talking about the "present age." If the present age is the "Times of the Gentiles," then it means that not even Jesus expected the promises God made to the Jewish people to be fulfilled in the first century.
Saying the present age is the "Times of the Gentiles" means that "this isn't the time for the Jews."
It wouldn't make sense for the Law to be fulfilled and then for Jesus to say, these are the "Times of the Gentiles." Fulfillment of the Law had no benefit to the Jewish people back then. It makes little sense to be "let off the hook" and then
to be kicked out of your homeland shortly after. That's like someone saying "happy birthday" and your favourite pet dying five seconds later. I think it is more likely that Jesus meant something else when he talked about fulfilling the Law. I could elaborate, but for now I'll just leave it at that.
In 1 John 5:3 it says that God's commandments are "not too hard," and Judaism is about commandments (called mitzvehs). If following the commandments was no longer necessary, 1 John wouldn't be talking about the commandments as if they were still important and therefore the Law wasn't abolished.
longweekend58 wrote on Sep 4
th, 2013 at 7:17pm:
ie those old testament laws do not apply any more.
The OT laws apply to Jews, not to us Gentiles and even then, not without reconciling it with oral tradition.