AiA wrote on Jan 3
rd, 2018 at 8:20am:
greggerypeccary wrote on Jan 3
rd, 2018 at 8:10am:
"Those participants who reported their heterosexuality despite having hidden same-sex desires were also the most likely to show hostility toward gay individuals, including self-reported anti-gay attitudes, endorsement of anti-gay policies and discrimination such as supporting harsher punishments for homosexuals."
^^^ a 1/3 of the members here (at least) are in that category.
It seems odd that this scientific 'fact' only applies to one group of people. Why do you think that is as greegy refuses to answer any of my questions, it seems like he is avoiding justifying what he is posting as fact.
What seems to be a classic primary school 'rubber - glue gambit' is now being touted as scientific 'fact' and if fantastically only applies in one single circumstance, homos.
In most cases this 'fact' would be discounted as total horse sh1t but is seems at least you two are solid proponents of this scientific 'fact'.
Why is is only applicable to one group and not others? I would presume as part of the study it would have been tested on a range of groups, wouldn't it?
Are all people who are repulsed by a group different to them actually a members of that group or does this phenomenon only apply to homos and if so why is that?
I think it applies to other groups as well.
There's an awful lot of people out there protesting too much, me thinks.
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