freediver wrote on Oct 15
th, 2017 at 7:53pm:
If Muslims did the exact same thing today under the same circumstances, would other Muslims consider it a crime?
They would not.
ACCORDING TO ISLAMIC DOCTRINE....
A true moslem only ever, knowingly,
commits a righteous and just killing, whenever he murders another person.
e.g.
Farhad Khalil Mohammad Jabar [the murderer of
Curtis Cheng],
would always be regarded by his own community [i.e. within their own ranks], to have been a righteous and faultless moslem.
...i.e. every moslem is deemed by [his own sect of] ISLAM, to be faultless and to be a righteous person.
...
he is a moslem!
And the victim of such a murder [by a moslem] is
always,
always,
always,
deemed to be an infidel.
...i.e. even if/when, the victim may have, himself, claimed to be a true moslem.
THE RULE IS THAT...
Whenever and wherever a moslem is involved in a conflict, a
moslem only ever kills
those who are deserving of death.
------- >
SYRIA: An example of moslems slaughtering moslems...
...and an example of moslems justifying this slaughter, as a moslem war against infidels.http://www.ozpolitic.com/forum/YaBB.pl?num=1333935983/0#0Next to an infidel,
every moslem is deemed to be a faultless and innocent person.
"Ye [
moslems] are the best of peoples, evolved for mankind,
enjoining what is right, forbidding what is wrong, and believing in Allah. If only the People of the Book had faith, it were best for them: among them are some who have faith, but most of them are perverted transgressors."
Koran 3.110